Friday, February 8, 2013


There are fifteen verses in the New Testament that specifically state who shall be saved.  The first three (Mt. 10:22; 24:13; Mk. 13:13) speak of "enduring unto the end."  I have two thoughts concerning this:  1)  These three verses were written to the Jews, with the last two specifically speaking of surviving the Tribulation; and 2)  The born again believer WILL endure to the end because it is the work of God, and is not dependent upon our strength (Phil. 1:6; etc.).

*  Mark 16:16 - "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned."  My understanding of this verse is that the difference between being saved and being lost is "believing" or "not believing."  Those who believe WILL be baptized because they believe.
*  John 10:9 - "I am the door: by Me if any man enter in, he shall be saved" (see Jn. 14:6).
*  Acts 2:21 - "whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved" (see Rom. 10:13).
*  Acts 11:14 - "words, whereby thou and all thy house shall be saved" (see Rom. 10:17).
*  Acts 15:11 - "through the grace of the Lord Jesus Christ we shall be saved" (see Eph. 2:8).
*  Rom. 5:9 - "we shall be saved from wrath through him" (see 1 Thes. 5:9).
*  Rom. 5:10 - "we shall be saved by His life" (His resurrection - see Rom. 10:9).
*  Rom. 9:27 - "a remnant (of Israel) shall be saved" (see Rom. 11:5; Rev. 12:17).
*  Rom. 11:26 - "And so all Israel shall be saved" (see Rom. 11:25-32).
*  1 Cor. 3:15 - "If any man's work shall be burned, he shall suffer loss: but he himself shall be saved; yet so as by fire" (see 1 Cor. 3:8-15).

There is one controversial verse which contains the phrase.  In 1 Timothy 2:15, Paul wrote, "Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety."  Because this verse, if taken alone, is inconsistent with the rest of God's Word.  So, what is the explanation for the apparent contradiction.  First, the antecedent for "she" is Eve (v. 13).  The antecedent for "they" has to be her children.  However, the word "they" does not appear in the Greek; it would make much more sense to insert the word "she" as a continuation of thought.  Otherwise, the only way Eve could be saved is to produce faithful (saved) children. 

There is another explanation that makes far more sense.  In Genesis 3:15, we are told that Eve's Seed (Jesus - Mt. 1:16; Lk. 3:23: Rev. 12:17) will defeat Satan's seed.  I believe the Child (Jesus is the One who will crush Satan) she was to bear was the issue, and not the process of bearing children.  My wording of the verse would be "And Eve shall be saved by her Seed, and so will all those who are serious in their faith, evidenced by their love and purity." 

Our understanding of a verse must be consistent with the rest of the Word of God!     

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